Micah 5:2, John 14:28, King James Bible, and other stuff

A

A_Son_of_God

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A person today claimed that Micah 5:2 proves that Jesus is God, because they stated that it says,

“But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall he come forth unto me that is to be ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting.”

What do you think? Does it prove that Jesus is God? Can you prove that Jesus is God from this statement? My argument is no. It doesn't, and the conclusion that it does is absurd. Here's why.

This is the quote from the KJV of 1611.

It is noteworthy that in 1611, the English language was very different to today's English. You will see a lot of people still using "Thee, thy, thou..." as though God himself speaks in Archaeic English. Even some translations of the Qur'an do this with the English language.

Well, God can choose to speak any language, but to hold the Bible in a dead language was the reason the apostasy spread so easily in the first place. Because it is a translation, the goal should be to present the message of the original language in the most accurate terms. Not a word for word translation, as that would just jumble sentences, and hence their meaning.

So I showed a link, from an online Bible study aid. Namely, studybible.info. If you click on the link, you'll see that it takes you to Micah 5:2 on there. It is an interlinear Bible as such, whereas the words that are used are represented as numbers, and you can click on the numbers, and see what the original word/s means.

But their response was "It's a JW link". What a close-minded comment!
First of all, they didn't look, as it isn't. But of itself, that mentality shows their true colours. Their way of begging off is to choose to lie about things, and strawman their way out of it. Cowardly, and not a debate. Like a little kid who calls someone a name, then runs away.

Secondly, if it WAS a "JW link", then they'd - if they had the truth, which they obviously don't - be able to demonstrate it by breaking it on down for us. But no, instead they ran away. I mean, it wasn't an encyclopedia, but a scripture. Fancy not being able to read a scripture.

Then again, maybe they are in Russia, as in Russia at present, the one who has chosen to rule over the land is currently banning Jehovah's Witnesses, and claiming they're terrorists, and that their Bible isn't a Bible. People who read the New World Translation, or look at information from Jehovah's Witnesses are potentially arrested and jailed, and have their property taken off them, as has been the case in Russia now for about 6 years in recent times. Still, the proof is in the pudding, as they say, but maybe this is why they were scared to read the thoughts of Jehovah's Witnesses, who don't worship Jesus, although they are Christians.

What annoyed me though, is while I was away, this person was lying about my beliefs to someone else while I wasn't there, like a little coward. Why not instead, try to teach the truth from their Bible that they claim? The answer is simple. Because they can't. They actually don't know. I mean, how focussed to specifically decide to firstly choose to attack me personally (I don't know this person, and they don't know me) instead of demonstrating from the Bible their side. Secondly, instead of just discussing in a debate room the actual point, they lied about me, and said I said things I didn't. Twisting things.

But this thread is put here because of their claim that I didn't answer it, so here's my answer to it.

If you have a look at the link here, it opens up an English translation, written over a Hebrew script. The English is a translation, like the KJV, but you'll notice above the Hebrew words, there are numbers. And in this instance, there are three numbers over the place where the KJV has "everlasting".

The numbers are H6924, H3117, and H5769. Look at all three, as all three of them come after the English translation below it.

The meanings are written underneath them, when you click on them. Beside the meaning, you'll also see a list of "First 30 of X occurences", and how the word has been translated in different places, as even in the KJV, the translators chose what seemed to suit at the time.
The number H5769, you will note is based on these two words combined - עלם עולם, and it has this explanation about the meaning of the word. "properly concealed, that is, the vanishing point; generally time out of mind (past or future), that is, (practically) eternity; frequentative adverbially (especially with prepositional prefix) always".

So, there is a potential for using the idea of eternity, but that is one out of three general ideas for what the word means, depending on the circumstances it appears in.

A deeper look is at those thirty first instances, and their meanings. Does the word get translated as "eternal" or "everlasting" every time? Let's look.

"To the age"
"Shall not always"
"Who were of old"
"That is with you, for perpetual"
"The everlasting"
"ever"
"For an everlasting"
"of the everlasting"
"To the age"

So no, they do not always mean "everlasting". And then we can question the language itself. "From everlasting". Is not "from" speaking about the past? Yet "lasting" is about the present and future? If I was to say something was lasting, it means it has so far lasted, but it may break down tomorrow. But "everlasting" is about the future. "It will last forever".

So "from everlasting" in modern English can not mean "from infinity", but more so gives the perspective of being that far back in the past, it is like looking at the horizon until it disappears. Not that it had no beginning, but that it is that far away.

So no, dotcom. "From everlasting" does not prove that Jesus is God. You may as well tell me that because the bell went "Ding dang dong", that means that Jesus is God, because it is just as abstract, and your conclusion is absurd.

And I'm looking forward to your explanation of Jesus' statement, "the Father is greater than I am." I would like to see how you can demonstrate this means that Jesus is equal to God, for my mathematics and logic classes taught me that
< and > are not =, and
we can be Jesus' brothers, but not God's brothers, and Jesus calls God his Father, but you claim Jesus is God. So you're God's brother?

I'm happy for you to prove it otherwise though.

*Point to note!
Currently, I am not one of Jehovah's Witnesses (mind you, I will be, and proudly so). But they teach the truth, and as I loathe false religion - I absolutely hate it - I will ONLY worship with them, as they practice the truth in harmony with the Christianity taught by Jesus, and not the political warmongering schemozzle that developed centuries later with Constantine. I don't hate people of other religions, as people are people. But the organisations that lie to people about God, and slander him to make him out as a monster by their teachings and actions, when it is clearly written down how it is, they are disgusting, and the prophecy about them being harlots and being devoured by the "eighth king, that springs from the seven" absolutely brings me joy!

Here are some other translations of that last verse from Micah 5:2, showing that not all of the Bible translators agree with dotcom's point of view.

New International Version - "whose origins are from of old, from ancient times.”
Amplified Version "His goings forth (appearances) are from long ago, From ancient days.”
Christian Standard Bible "His origin is from antiquity, from ancient times."
Common English Bible "His origin is from remote times, from ancient days."
Easy-to-read Version "His beginnings are from ancient times, from long, long ago."
Contemporary English Version "someone whose family goes back to ancient times."
Good News Translation "whose family line goes back to ancient times."
New World Translation "whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting."
 

Altair

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Your faith is obviously strong. Yet it is not strong enough to answer your own questions?

I will assist you.

When you replace JESUS/GOD with the SUN. All will become clear.

Humans have worshipped the SUN for thousands of years. It brings us warmth and light and helps our crops grow.

When you replace 'Made up gods' with the SUN all becomes clear.

The stories you mention are Tales/Stories.

You have way too much time on your hands, as did the writers of those tales and stories.

Concentrate on the here and now, not in fanciful stories and scriptures that mean nothing in todays world.
 

dotcom

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In answer to why Jesus said the father is greater than I.
Since you constantly ask about this shows just how much you refuse to look at the context of the story.
Jesus says it in John 14. Why are you ignoring John 13?.What's going on in John 13?
The greater context is the promising of the holy spirit to the apostles after Jesus ressurection.
We see an upper discourse with the apostles where Jesus takes off his robe.wraps a towel around himself and washes the feet of the apostles. Peter say's your not washing my feet thats servants work. Jesus more or less replies You dont understand what it is im doing for you.
Hebrews 2: tells us...But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than the angels for a little while, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
Again in Philippians 2 5-11 we see..
5 In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:

6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
7 rather, he made himself nothing
by taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
by becoming obedient to death—
even death on a cross!
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father..
This is what is known as Jesus incarnation where he temporarily becomes lower than the angels in full humility in order to become fully human.

Secondly Mathew 28:18...And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth.
Given to him by who?..the father.Jesus was given authority by the father so in this sense the father is greater. That does not mean Jesus with all the Authority of God is not fully God.
Now what is the problem with Jesus saying the father is greater?
Now explain to me why you have taken John14:28 out of context and tried to use it numerous times on me.
 

dotcom

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we can be Jesus' brothers, but not God's brothers, and Jesus calls God his Father, but you claim Jesus is God. So you're God's brother?
This is such a childish argument.
We are sons of God through the seed of Adam.
There is only one son of God who was actually fathered by God.
 
A

A_Son_of_God

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I have to answer this in two parts, as it only allows 1500 words, and many are quotes.

In answer to why Jesus said the father is greater than I.
Since you constantly ask about this shows just how much you refuse to look at the context of the story.
Oh, great! An explanation! I give you credit, genuine credit, for offering to present an argument for your case. Not many do.

Jesus says it in John 14. Why are you ignoring John 13?.What's going on in John 13?

I thought you would have written something here specific about what you meant in John 13. Nevertheless, I will present how I read John 13, and see what we can work out from it.

"What was Jesus' mindset, presented here?"
John 13:3 tells us,

"So Jesus, knowing that the Father had given all things into his hands and that he came from God and was going to God..."

Nowhere is it saying anything about Jesus thinking he was God, nor did he see this as any hope when he got to where he came from. Note, it acknowledges Jesus CAME from God (yes, God is Jesus' origin), and that he was GOING to God, but it says nothing about Jesus BEING God.

Also, after explaining WHY he washed their feet - namely, setting an example for them to follow, in that they should slave for one another, and any of them who viewed themselves as something special should eat humble pie - he then says in verse 16:

"Most truly I say to you, a slave is not greater than his master, nor is one who is sent greater than the one who sent him."

So, let's recap. Jesus knew he was sent from the Father (note, God is still viewed as "Father") and was returning to the Father, he now explains that "the one sent is not greater than the one who sent him". But he's not even stating it as an equality. He used two expressions, to show the same mentality. The first one was that of Jesus' role being a slave of the Most High God. "A slave is not greater than his master", he says.

Verse 31 and 32 also shed light on this, by saying:

“Now the Son of man is glorified, and God is glorified in connection with him. God himself will glorify him, and he will glorify him immediately."

Here, Jesus again makes a clear demarcation between himself and the Father, while yet showing his oneness of spirit. Jesus is in harmony with God, which is why God glorifies Jesus. Although what Jesus does glorifies God, it is God who does the glorifying of Jesus. Note that in this instance, importantly, Jesus refers to himself as "the Son of man". Why? This is due to - like the rest of the chapter speaks of, Jesus' human sacrifice he presents to buy out mankind - the sons of men - from the condemnation and death that Adam had sold them into by his choice to follow Satanic thinking.
Also note that God isn't glorified BY Jesus, as if God needed to be glorified in some form, but "in connection with him". What is the difference? It is through Jesus, that people can see a footprint example of how God's thinking is, and a way for us to walk, knowing that Jesus set a pattern for us to aim at. A model for us to follow as humans. But that does not make us God if we follow it, does it. Even if we became Christ's brothers, that does not make us God, does it.

The greater context is the promising of the holy spirit to the apostles after Jesus resurrection.
We see an upper discourse with the apostles where Jesus takes off his robe.wraps a towel around himself and washes the feet of the apostles. Peter say's your not washing my feet thats servants work. Jesus more or less replies You dont understand what it is im doing for you.

How does this "context" explain that Jesus is equal to God? It doesn't. It just reinforces that Jesus was stating he too was a slave and servant.
Hebrews 2: tells us...But we do see Jesus, who was made lower than the angels for a little while, now crowned with glory and honor because he suffered death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone.
So, Jesus was crowned with glory. I wonder who gave him that crown. Himself? No. Not considering he was - as you are demonstrating - "a little lower than angels". So, considering this, how do you ever see God, in any form at all, being "a little lower than angels"???

The term "grace of God" too is important to recognise here.

Going further in that section, let's look at what the conclusion of that paragraph is, in the writer of Hebrews' eyes. Hebrews 2:17 tells us this:

"Consequently, he had to become like his “brothers” in all respects, so that he could become a merciful and faithful high priest in things relating to God, in order to offer a propitiatory sacrifice for the sins of the people. Since he himself has suffered when being put to the test, he is able to come to the aid of those who are being put to the test."

This verse raises at least two issues with the claim you're stating.

1)
Again, how can anyone be God's "brothers"? I didn't make it up. It's written there in the holy writings. You're not arguing against me. You're arguing against the writings. How are you claiming to be "God's brother" in any respect. LOL! Like "his brothers in ALL respects". All. Does that make sense to you?

2)
It states Jesus' role from all this. What did he become? Did he become God after doing all of this? No! It is clearly written for every able-bodied human to read for themselves. "...so that he could BECOME a merciful and faithful HIGH PRIEST in things relating to God."
This means that Jesus was NOT viewed as a high priest prior to his death, nor as his walking around on the earth as the Messiah. No. He became one after his death.

Again in Philippians 2 5-11 we see..
5 In your relationships with one another, have the same mindset as Christ Jesus:
6 Who, being in very nature God,
did not consider equality with God something to be used to his own advantage;
I have to answer this in two parts, as the formatting only allows 10 000 characters, or around 1500 words.
Good point. But why are you not using the KJV in this example? LOL! Let's look at that, shall we. Let's look at what the KJV says.

"Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God:"

THAT is what the KJV states, of which you claimed earlier to be errorless and clear. The KJV states very loudly in this verse that in modern English appears to show Jesus as equal to God. But it doesn't, does it. That's why you used a different translation to demonstrate it.

So first, let's view this section from the KJV, so we can clarify. As your new version acknowledges, the KJV is in error here, only due to translation from archaeic English to modern English. The term "thought it not" is rarely used in English today. "I thought it not" is not the way we express things, but back then they did. So Jesus' "thought it not robbery" actually has the opposite meaning, as your translation you have used demonstrates as acknowledged by the translator.
It can even more clearly be demonstrated in that we are told to have in us the same mind as Jesus. So although it states to be a slave, it also tells us to "think it not robbery to be equal to God". Any sane person would work out that the verse is badly worded in modern English, and a better translation is required. Otherwise, we'd all be equal to God, wouldn't we.
 
A

A_Son_of_God

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I have to answer this in two parts, as it only allows 1500 words, and many are quotes.

7 rather, he made himself nothing
by taking the very nature of a servant,
being made in human likeness.
8 And being found in appearance as a man,
he humbled himself
by becoming obedient to death—
even death on a cross!

Obedient to whom?
9 Therefore God exalted him to the highest place
and gave him the name that is above every name,
10 that at the name of Jesus every knee should bow,
in heaven and on earth and under the earth,
11 and every tongue acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord,
to the glory of God the Father..

Ah! THERE'S the answer. God.
So we recap again and see that Jesus was given a name above every other name...but surely if God put Jesus' name "above every other name", then that means that Jesus is now higher than God, yeah?
We have a dilemma.

Either Jesus is HIGHER than God now, or Jesus is above every other name other than God himself.

Because the scripture does not state that God made Jesus his equal, nor does it even suggest Jesus is equal to God. It gives us two choices. As above.

Also, note that the verses give us the answer clearly by stating that this "higher than every other name" included that "every tongue acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord TO THE GLORY OF GOD THE FATHER."
This is what is known as Jesus incarnation where he temporarily becomes lower than the angels in full humility in order to become fully human.

No, it doesn't. Jesus was not reincarnated. Humans were made in God's image too, as were the heavenly sons of God - the angels.
Mathew 28:18...And Jesus came and spoke to them, saying, “All authority has been given to Me in heaven and on earth.

Given to him by who?..the father.Jesus was given authority by the father so in this sense the father is greater. That does not mean Jesus with all the Authority of God is not fully God.
Now what is the problem with Jesus saying the father is greater?
So you wish to argue that because Jesus is given authority, this does not mean that he already had it? If he was God - let me explain this to you, as it might be difficult to grasp - If he was God, he ALWAYS had the authority. Your argument is weak, because Jesus stating that "the Father is greater than I am" means, very simply, that Jesus viewed the Father as greater than he was. Not like the hypocritical religions who blaspheme God by worshipping the creation, and instead of loving their enemies, they bless warfare.
Now explain to me why you have taken John14:28 out of context and tried to use it numerous times on me.
Out of what context was it presented other than how it was plainly and clearly written?
 
A

A_Son_of_God

Guest
This is such a childish argument.

No, it isn't childish. That claim is a form of ridicule on your part. The truth is important. False religion is about to be pulverised by the governments through the UN. In fact, you acknowledged this to some degree in one of your earlier posts. It is that important for people to recognise, because their lives are at risk, and mostly at risk due to false teachings, and claims of organisations that blaspheme God by their conduct, let alone their words.
We are sons of God through the seed of Adam.

Romans chapter 8 says differently. We are NOT all sons of God through Adam. 8:19 speaks of a "revealing" of the sons of God. Why would it do so, if we were all sons of God?
There is only one son of God who was actually fathered by God.
Then why does Job 1:6 and 2:1 show other sons of God, and also Genesis 6:4 show them, before the flood? They weren't born of women either?

God chooses to use the term "sons", so therefore we can view ourselves - in the correct terminology of how the Bible presents it - as sons, when the conditions apply.
 

dotcom

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Ah! THERE'S the answer. God.
So we recap again and see that Jesus was given a name above every other name...but surely if God put Jesus' name "above every other name", then that means that Jesus is now higher than God, yeah?
We have a dilemma.
Does it really put Jesus above God?.. lets see what Jesus himself said.
John 17 1-6
1 These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:

2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.

3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.

5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.

Now the dilema is yours in explaining how a creature has all the power of God.
 
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dotcom

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sometimes i think they same. sometimes i think they different . . . . . i dont know because i never gets close to the end of the BIBLE . . . . . i have a hard time getting past GENESIS because every time i think i do something wrong i start over.
Hi mate.
Theres nothing at all wrong with starting with one of the gospels.Mathew,Luke,Mark or John.
Maybe a book at a time.A New testament book then an old testament,book.Mix it up.Theres no set rule.
 
A

A_Son_of_God

Guest
sometimes i think they same. sometimes i think they different . . . . . i dont know because i never gets close to the end of the BIBLE . . . . . i have a hard time getting past GENESIS because every time i think i do something wrong i start over
It is good you are reading it anyway mate. Many don't, and their opinions are based not on what is written, but what they think is written. You are doing very well. Keep up the good work. If you have trouble getting past Genesis, choose another book to start with. For instance, Proverbs, or one of the gospel accounts, or one of the prophets like Amos, Joel, Obadiah, or even one of Paul's letters. It's up to you. You're doing well. Top job!
 
A

A_Son_of_God

Guest
Does it really put Jesus above God?

I didn't say that.

.. lets see what Jesus himself said.
John 17 1-6
1 These words spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to heaven, and said, Father, the hour is come; glorify thy Son, that thy Son also may glorify thee:

2 As thou hast given him power over all flesh, that he should give eternal life to as many as thou hast given him.

3 And this is life eternal, that they might know thee the only true God, and Jesus Christ, whom thou hast sent.

4 I have glorified thee on the earth: I have finished the work which thou gavest me to do.

5 And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.

6 I have manifested thy name unto the men which thou gavest me out of the world: thine they were, and thou gavest them me; and they have kept thy word.

Now the dilema is yours in explaining how a creature has all the power of God.
There is no dilemma for me. It is yours. The problem is your reasoning on Philippians chapter two, specifically 2:9. You stated that Jesus was God. Therefore, if God put a part of God - "God the Son", or "second head of the three-headed beast"- a name above every other name, then God had given Jesus a name higher than God. Therefore, God - God the Father, was now subject to Jesus.

Either that, or...

God gave Jesus a name higher than any other name, with the exception of God himself. This would mean that Jesus was not equal to God.

Can you demonstrate to me how the section in John 17:1-6 shows Jesus as having ALL the power of God? Because I can't see that. All I can see from this verse specifically is this:
1) Jesus was given authority over all flesh.
2) Jesus has the power of the resurrection.
3) God and Jesus are still clearly separate by Jesus' own claim of a demarcation.
4) Jesus did his job. He did the work he was given to do.
5) Jesus was asking for glory, to be with the Father, like he was formerly in heaven, as God's only begotten Son. All other creation came through the hand of that only begotten Son, who as Proverbs chapter 8 shows was God's master worker (this is another interesting topic we could look at later if you wanted to).
6) Jesus existed before the world was, as did ALL the spirit sons of God (Job 38:4,7)

As stated, the dilemma isn't mine. It's yours man. Either God gave Jesus a name higher than God's own holy name, because he was already God, but another incarnation, yeah?, or Jesus' name was raised higher than all other names with the exception of God.

There is no basis in this scripture to conclude that Jesus was equal to God. Those two understandings are the only ones that follow a logical line, and can be demonstrated on a pair of scales.

Let me demonstrate it in word picture format:


Scenario 1)
IF:


God - equal to - Jesus

Jesus obeys God, dies for mankind.

God exalts Jesus name higher than every other name.

Jesus.
not equal to
God

OR

Scenario 2)

IF:

God - not equal to - Jesus

Jesus obeys God, dies for mankind.

God exalts Jesus name higher than every other name...with the exception of his own holy name.

God
not equal to
Jesus.

There is no way to demonstrate Jesus becoming equal to God in this example. But it clearly defines them as individuals.
 
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dotcom

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There is no basis in this scripture to conclude that Jesus was equal to God. Those two understandings are the only ones that follow a logical line, and can be demonstrated on a pair of scales.
Rev 5:13
“And every creature which is in heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and such as are in the sea, and all that are in them, heard I saying, Blessing, and honour, and glory, and power, be unto him that sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb for ever and ever.”

No basis in scripture?
Idolotry and blasphemy if Jesus is not God.
 
A

A_Son_of_God

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i know i can jump around but im the type person that wants to read the whole BIBLE from the beginning to the end without jumping around
The Bible isn't specifically in chronological order. Admittedly, it starts like that, but it's a book which is actually a collection of books, over a period of 1600 years. Therefore, there are sections that applied to specific people with specific times, under specific circumstances. That is why it is beneficial, for example, for a person to start with Jesus' teachings, if he wanted to know the teachings of a Christian, and then go back to understand why these beliefs are there, based on the teachings of the prophets prior to Jesus.
 
A

A_Son_of_God

Guest
Rev 5:13
“And every creature which is in heaven, and on the earth, and under the earth, and such as are in the sea, and all that are in them, heard I saying, Blessing, and honour, and glory, and power, be unto him that sitteth upon the throne, and unto the Lamb for ever and ever.”

No basis in scripture?
Idolotry and blasphemy if Jesus is not God.
You're avoiding answering any question I've raised for some reason.

Simply put, now you're using an article stating to show both God and Jesus honour, by claiming again without any substance or basis anything to do with proving your point that they're one and the same, which they aren't obviously.

This scripture agrees with the conclusion that "God exalted Jesus to a name above every other name", yet, as exactly stated before, there is no basis for claiming Jesus is equal to God.

Why are you instead of answering your claim by demonstrating how it means "Jesus is equal to God" by using other scriptures that state exactly the same thing - namely, that Jesus was exalted BY God to a higher position than the one he had formerly? Why are you consistently refusing to refute the claims made, but instead moving onto the next ones?

Let me help you with this:

In Revelation chapters 1-3 Jesus clearly demonstrates himself in that new position of God, by speaking to the congregations. Let's analyse that, seeming how you wish to again detract from answering any counter arguments to your claims.

In Revelation 1:4-5, it states that you - the listener in this instance - have peace from God, from the seven spirits before his throne, and from Jesus Christ. All separate entities. Not a Godhead, not a three-headed beast. In fact, it calls Jesus specifically in this section, "The faithful witness", and not God, or some part-god/demi-god.

In Revelation 1:6, it clearly states that Jesus made "us" - John is speaking as one of Jesus' anointed brothers - to be "a nation of priests TO HIS GOD AND FATHER". Whose God and Father? Johns? No! Jesus' God and father.

So here we have Jesus in heaven being recognised as STILL having a God and Father, and not some melding of two heads like in a sequel of Terminator. Stop making both God and Jesus out as monsters.

But let's go on a little further, shall we. Let's get to chapter 3.

Jesus has a message to the congregations, and in Revelation 3:12, he tells us that the one who conquers, Jesus will use his authority to make these people "pillars" in God's arrangement. But look how he words it:

"To the one that conquers, I will make him a pillar in the temple of MY God"

Whose God? John's God? No.
Jesus states that he will make the faithful person a pillar in the temple of the God of whom Jesus worships.

Then he goes on further. He says this next:

"...and I will write upon him THE NAME OF MY GOD, and the name of the city of MY GOD..."

So, here Jesus is stating that he will write the name of JESUS' GOD on the person. Yes, Jesus has a God, even when he's sitting on a throne in heaven, as his throne - like many thrones in the world even, when it came to certain empires - are subject to another throne. And Jesus will write on him the name of God's city - not Jesus' city. God's. Jesus is clearly not God.

Jesus describes this city as

"the New Jerusalem that descends out of heaven from MY GOD".

It doesn't come from Jesus. It comes from the God whom Jesus still worships, although in heaven.

But then comes a specific demarcation that I'd like you to explain please. He then says this:

"...and my own new name."

Jesus' own new name? What can that possibly be? If Jesus was God, then he'd not have an individual new name separate to that of God would he. No.

So yes, the scripture you highlight in Revelation chapter 5 DOES show Jesus having authority, but having authority does not make someone God. No matter how much you want it to fit into a box that is wrong for it.

But how about you do me a favour now. How about you demonstrate how this is "Idolatry and blasphemy" if Jesus isn't God. How do YOU see this? Please explain.
 

xxwhite_dovexx

Hello from Florida! Be thankful !
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Yeshua and Abba Yahweh are 1 they have to think alike so neither is before the other.
"/The first will become the last and the last shall become the first"
 
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